Hi,

I need some help to see the light with the inverse=true.... I understand how to get all different assocation relationships to work. But what keeps me awake is the exact role of the inverse property. Especially the following points:

-Role of Inverse on a Join with property elements (so join not for association). Does it make sense to ever do that?
-Role of Inverse on a joined one-to-one.
-Inverse on a one-to-many is it also true that: “Changes made only to the inverse end of the association are not persisted”. Or is that only true for many-to-many? (in 1-n tests it seems to persist also on the inversed side)

Is there a single clear definition of the inverse=true? There doesn't seem to be one in the docs....

Thanks!

Raphael

in a bi-directional relationship, one side must "own" the relationship - *both* cannot do this.

if class A owns the relationship w/ class B, object A is what the ORM looks to in order to manage that relationship in the data model.

by saying inverse="true", you are saying "I don't own the relationship, look at the other side (of the relationship) for what to do (w/ the SQL)".

Dennis,

Thanks for your reply!

Does "owning" imply that changes made only to the inverse end of the association are not persisted (my 3rd point). Or does owning only specify where to find the information for this relation?

Is the inverse on a join element only used when that join element has a nested many-to-one and never when it merely has properties/component?


Tx.,

Raphael